LeiterWagnerFasterStrongr wrote: smg58 wrote: bmfc1 wrote: "Known or should have known" is going to be tough to prove. That's terrible language. If the former is true, there's no need to include the latter. By including the latter, it implies that they can't prove that the Wilpons knew. And "should have known" means what, exactly? A number of investment firms were suspicious about Madoff but didn't act on their suspicions. The Wilpons, as bmfc pointed out, are real-estate specialists. And besides... what does "should have known" mean? Had opportunity to know? Had ample circumstantial proof if they'd looked? That they should have been educated better on how their meat was made, or that they presumably were? If I direct someone to order from a menu I either (A) know is poisoned ahead of time or ( find out is poisoned prior to meal service/as the meal is being served, and I say nothing, then I'm criminally liable-- and liable, as well, in a civil suit-- for that person's illness/death, yes? But if I've eaten there before, had good experiences (despite never having been in the kitchen/asking exactly what I'm having), and don't know ahead of time, or indeed, until a coroner's report tells me so, then how the hell can I be liable? I'm not a chef, or a restaurant professional... I'm a (semi-)informed customer making a recommendation. but what if the day before you'd seen an ambulance out front of the restaurant, lights all a-flashing..?